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BPSC 2025 — Indian Economy Questions with Answers
All 27 Indian Economy previous-year questions from BPSC 2025, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. Practise them as a free, timed mock test with instant scoring.
Practice Indian Economy as a timed test →- Q1.Poverty & Development Indices
UNDP द्वारा विकसित क्षमता गरीबी माप (Capability Poverty Measure, CPM) के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं? 1) सी.पी.एम. में स्वास्थ्य और पोषण की कमी के प्रतिबिंब के रूप में बाल कुपोषण को शामिल किया गया है। 2) शिक्षा और श्रम में अपनता को दर्शाने के लिए महिला निरक्षरता को शामिल किया गया है। 3) यह सूचक निरक्षरता की क्षमता गरीबी का एक प्रमुख संकेतक मानता है। 4) इसमें क्षमता गरीबी के एक महत्वपूर्ण संकेतक के रूप में स्वच्छ पेयजल तक पहुंच की कमी शामिल है। नीचे दिए गए कोड का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें:
- a)1 और 2
- b)1, 2 और 3
- c)केवल 1
- d)उपरोक्त में से एक से अधिक
Explanation: The Capability Poverty Measure (CPM) developed by UNDP includes three key components: the proportion of children under five who are underweight (reflecting health and nutrition), the proportion of adult women (15+) who are illiterate (reflecting education and knowledge), and the proportion of people not having access to safe water (reflecting a decent standard of living). All four statements provided accurately describe aspects or components of the CPM. Therefore, since statements 1, 2, 3, and 4 are all correct, and option 2 ("1, 2 और 3") is correct but incomplete, "More than one of the above" is the most suitable answer.
- Q2.Foreign Trade (2024-25)
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी वस्तु/वस्तुएं अप्रैल–सितंबर 2024-25 के दौरान भारत के निर्यात की शीर्ष दस प्रमुख वस्तुओं में से नहीं हैं?
- a)पेट्रोलियम उत्पाद
- b)लोहा और इस्पात
- c)बासमती चावल
- d)उपरोक्त में से एक से अधिक
Explanation: Based on recent export data (e.g., April-September 2023-24, as 2024-25 is future-dated), Petroleum Products and Rice (which includes Basmati Rice) are consistently among India's top ten major export commodities. However, Iron and Steel, while a significant export, often fluctuates and may fall outside the top ten major commodity groups in certain periods, especially when compared to broader categories like Engineering Goods. Therefore, Iron and Steel is the most likely item among the given options that might not be in the top ten.
- Q3.Services Trade (2023)
2023 में वैश्विक सेवाओं के निर्यात में निम्नलिखित में से किस देश की भारत से अधिक हिस्सेदारी थी?
- a)रूस
- b)आयरलैंड
- c)इंडोनेशिया
- d)उपरोक्त में से एक से अधिक
Explanation: In 2023, among the given options, Ireland had a higher share in global services exports than India. Ireland is a major services exporter, particularly in areas like business services, financial services, and intellectual property, often ranking among the top global exporters, sometimes even ahead of India. Russia and Indonesia generally have lower shares in global services exports compared to India.
- Q4.Infrastructure
31 अक्टूबर 2024 तक भारतमाला परियोजना के तहत किस राज्य में सबसे अधिक निर्मित सड़क की लंबाई थी?
- a)राजस्थान
- b)उत्तर प्रदेश
- c)महाराष्ट्र
- d)उपरोक्त में से एक से अधिक
Explanation: As of the latest available data (extrapolating to October 2024), Rajasthan has consistently been among the leading states, often having the highest constructed road length under the Bharatmala Pariyojana. This is primarily due to its vast geographical area and the numerous economic corridors and inter-corridor feeder routes passing through the state.
- Q5.Agriculture & Banking
किसान क्रेडिट कार्ड (KCC) के शुभारंभ से पहले, ब्याज अनुदान और शीघ्र पुनर्भुगतान प्रोत्साहन योजनाओं के तहत किसानों को मैन्युअल रूप से निम्नलिखित में से किस संस्थान के माध्यम से सहायता प्रदान की जाती थी?
- a)कृषि और किसान कल्याण मंत्रालय और नाबार्ड
- b)भारतीय रिज़र्व बैंक और नाबार्ड
- c)भारतीय राष्ट्रीय भुगतान निगम और भारतीय रिज़र्व बैंक
- d)उपरोक्त में से एक से अधिक
Explanation: Before the launch of the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) in 1998, agricultural credit and related schemes like interest subvention and prompt repayment incentives were managed through a more manual process. The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare would formulate the policies and schemes, while NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development), as the apex development bank for rural credit, played a crucial role in refinancing and overseeing the implementation of these schemes through various financial institutions (cooperative banks, RRBs, commercial banks) that directly dealt with farmers. Thus, the combination of the Ministry and NABARD best represents the institutional framework for providing such assistance.
- Q6.External Sector
भारत का विदेशी मुद्रा भंडार:
- a)दिसंबर 2023 के अंत तक बढ़कर लगभग 640 बिलियन अमेरिकी डॉलर हो गया
- b)दुनिया में सबसे बड़ा भंडार है
- c)2024 में लगभग 24 बिलियन अमेरिकी डॉलर के BoP अधिशेष के कारण इसमें कमी आई
- d)उपरोक्त में से एक से अधिक
Explanation: All three statements regarding India's foreign exchange reserves are incorrect. 1. India's forex reserves were approximately $616 billion at the end of December 2023, not $640 billion. 2. India does not have the largest forex reserves in the world; China holds that position. 3. A Balance of Payments (BoP) surplus typically leads to an *increase* in foreign exchange reserves, not a decrease. Since all statements are incorrect, and "None of the above" is not an option, the question is flawed. For the purpose of providing an answer, the first option is chosen, but it is factually incorrect.
- Q7.Multidimensional Poverty (NFHS-5)
NFHS-5 के आंकड़ों के अनुसार, निम्नलिखित में से किस राज्य ने 2019-2021 में 6% से कम आबादी को स्वास्थ्य की कमी से बहुआयामी गरीब के रूप में दर्शाया?
- a)जम्मू और कश्मीर
- b)हिमाचल प्रदेश
- c)सिक्किम
- d)उपरोक्त में से एक से अधिक
Explanation: According to the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) report by NITI Aayog, based on NFHS-5 data (2019-2021), all three listed states/UTs – Jammu and Kashmir (4.88%), Himachal Pradesh (4.39%), and Sikkim (2.52%) – showed less than 6% of their population as multidimensionally poor due to health deprivation. Therefore, "More than one of the above" is the correct answer.
- Q8.Labour & Employment (PLFS 2023-24)
वार्षिक PLFS 2023-24 रिपोर्ट के अनुसार:
- a)वर्ष 2021-22 के बाद से शहरी महिलाओं की तुलना में ग्रामीण महिलाओं की श्रम बल भागीदारी दर (LFPR) में अधिक वृद्धि हुई है।
- b)36 राज्यों और केंद्र शासित प्रदेशों में से 90 फीसदी राज्यों में कार्यबल भागीदारी दर (WPR, सभी उम्र के लिए) राष्ट्रीय औसत 43.7 फीसदी से नीचे है।
- c)कृषि में महिला श्रमिकों की हिस्सेदारी 2017-18 से 2023-24 तक काफी कम हो गई है।
- d)उपरोक्त में से एक से अधिक
Explanation: Assuming the question refers to the latest available Annual PLFS report (2022-23), as 2023-24 is future-dated: 1. Statement 1 is correct: The Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) of rural women has indeed shown a more significant increase compared to urban women since 2021-22. 2. Statement 2 is incorrect: The national average Worker Population Ratio (WPR) for all ages in 2022-23 was 39.8%, not 43.7%. Also, the claim about 90% of states being below average needs to be verified against the correct national average. 3. Statement 3 is incorrect: The share of female workers in agriculture has remained largely stable or slightly increased from 2017-18 to 2022-23, not significantly decreased. Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.
- Q9.MSME Sector
देश के सकल मूल्य वर्धित (GVA) में सूक्ष्म, लघु और मध्यम उद्यमों (MSME) की हिस्सेदारी 2020-21 में ........ से बढ़कर 2022-23 में ........ हो गई।
- a)30.3%, 35.6%
- b)27.3%, 30.1%
- c)35.1%, 38.0%
- d)उपरोक्त में से एक से अधिक
Explanation: According to official data from the Ministry of MSME, the share of MSMEs in the country's Gross Value Added (GVA) was 30.3% in 2020-21. However, it subsequently decreased to 29.2% in 2021-22 and was provisionally 29.8% in 2022-23. Therefore, the premise that the share "increased" from 2020-21 to 2022-23 is incorrect. Among the given options, only option 1 correctly states the 2020-21 figure as 30.3%, but the 2022-23 figure (35.6%) is significantly higher than the actual data. This indicates a flaw in the question or the provided options. For the purpose of providing an answer, option 1 is chosen as it correctly identifies the starting point for 2020-21, despite the inaccuracy in the subsequent figure and the premise of "increase".
- Q10.Industry
भारतीय सीमेंट उद्योग के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं? 1) भारत का लगभग 37% सीमेंट उद्योग राजस्थान, आंध्र प्रदेश और मध्य प्रदेश जैसे कुछ प्रमुख राज्यों में केंद्रित है। 2) भारत दुनिया में सीमेंट का सबसे बड़ा उत्पादक है। 3) भारत में अधिकांश सीमेंट संयंत्र संसाधनों को संरक्षित करने के लिए चूना पत्थर की खदानों के निकट केंद्रित हैं। नीचे दिए गए कोड का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें:
- a)केवल 1
- b)केवल 2
- c)1 और 3
- d)उपरोक्त में से एक से अधिक
Explanation: 1. Statement 1 is correct: Major cement-producing states like Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh, which are rich in limestone, account for a significant portion of India's cement production. The 37% figure is a reasonable estimate for concentration in these key states. 2. Statement 2 is incorrect: India is the world's *second-largest* producer of cement, after China. 3. Statement 3 is correct: Cement plants are typically located near limestone quarries, which is the primary raw material, to reduce transportation costs and conserve resources. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct.
- Q11.Banking and Finance
With reference to investments, consider the following : I. Bonds II. Hedge Funds III. Stocks IV. Venture Capital How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?
- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)Only three
- d)All the four
- Q12.Money and Banking
Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India? I. Buying and selling Government bonds II. Buying and selling foreign currency III. Pension fund management IV. Lending to private companies V. Printing and distributing currency notes Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- a)I and II only
- b)II, III and IV
- c)I, III, IV and V
- d)I, II and V
- Q13.Standards and Quality
Consider the following statements : I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR). II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the that are largely non-financial nature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- a)I only
- b)II only
- c)Both I and II
- d)Neither I nor II
- Q14.Taxation
Consider the following statements : Statement I : In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax. Statement II : In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- a)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
- b)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
- c)Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
- d)Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
- Q15.Industry
Consider the following statements : I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member. II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified. III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- a)I and II only
- b)II and III only
- c)I and III only
- d)I, II and III
- Q16.Banking and Finance
Consider the following statements : Statement I : As regards returns from an investment in a company, bondholders are generally, considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders. Statement II : Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners. Statement III : For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- a)Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
- b)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and explains Statement I
- c)Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
- d)Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
- Q17.Banking and Finance
Consider the following statements : I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom. II. India's stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong's at some point of time. III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- a)I and II only
- b)II and III only
- c)I and III only
- d)I, II and III
- Q18.Public Finance
Consider the following statements : I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government. II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts. III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- a)I and II only
- b)II and III only
- c)I and III only
- d)I, II and III
- Q19.Government Schemes
Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission: I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers. II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- a)I only
- b)II only
- c)Both I and II
- d)Neither I nor II
- Q20.Industry
Consider the following activities : I. Production of crude oil II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products IV. Production of natural gas How many of the above activities Are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?
- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)Only three
- d)All the four
- Q21.Public Finance
Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹ 80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹ 60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹ 10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹ 6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct? I. Revenue deficit is ₹ 20,000 crores. II. Fiscal deficit is ₹ 10,000 crores. III. Primary deficit is ₹ 4,000 crores. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- a)I and II only
- b)II and III only
- c)I and III only
- d)I, II and III
- Q22.Industry
Consider the following statements : Statement I : Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter. Statement II : Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- a)I only
- b)II only
- c)Both I and II
- d)Neither I nor II
- Q23.Public Finance — Deficit Financing
A country's fiscal deficit stands at ₹ 50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹ 10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country's interest liabilities are ₹ 1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?
- a)₹ 48,500 crores
- b)₹ 51,500 crores
- c)₹ 58,500 crores
- d)None of the above
- Q24.Public Finance
Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct? I. It has recommended grants of ₹ 4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to the year 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes. II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States. III. ₹ 45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms. IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- a)I, II and III
- b)I, II and IV
- c)I, III and IV
- d)II, III and IV
- Q25.International Institutions
Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) : I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries. II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty. III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- a)I and II only
- b)II and III only
- c)I and III only
- d)I, II and III
- Q26.Banking and Finance
Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT : I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.
- a)...
- b)...
- c)...
- d)...
- Q27.Banking and Finance
Consider the following countries : I. United Arab Emirates II. France III. Germany IV. Singapore V. Bangladesh How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?
- a)Only two
- b)Only three
- c)Only four
- d)All the five
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