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BPSC 2023 — Indian Polity & Governance Questions with Answers
All 49 Indian Polity & Governance previous-year questions from BPSC 2023, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. Practise them as a free, timed mock test with instant scoring.
Practice Indian Polity & Governance as a timed test →- Q1.Judiciary
Answer the following: Explain the concern of the Supreme Court of India on combating gender stereotypes.
- Q2.Criminal Law Reforms
Answer the following: Examine the relevance of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 in Indian governance system.
- Q3.Technology in Governance
Answer the following: Evaluate the role of Artificial Intelligence in decision-making process of the Legislative institutions.
- Q4.Internal Security and Ethnic Conflict
Provide a brief overview of the Manipur crisis. In your view, what could be the potential repercussion of this ethno-religious conflict on the landscape of national politics? Comment.
- Q5.Constitution
What could be the potential positive and negative societal consequences of introducing a Uniform Civil Code in India, considering its rich diversity? Explain.
- Q6.Constitution
Write short answer: Critically examine the basic structure theory regarding the Indian Constitution.
- Q7.Reservation Policy
Write short answer: Is reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) justified? Comment.
- Q8.Constitution
Write short answer: Critically describe about the amendment process of the Indian Constitution.
- Q9.Constitution
Write short answer: Explain how Preamble of the Indian Constitution provides a blueprint about the goals of the Constitution.
- Q10.Society and Politics
Write short answer: Describe how caste census is going to influence the politics of Bihar.
- Q11.Union Executive
Discuss the institutional relationship between the President and the Prime Minister as per the Indian Constitutional text. Discuss their changing role in the present context.
- Q12.Federalism
"Indian federalism is fundamentally rooted in two simultaneous pursuits of nationhood: an embrace of state-based cultural diversities and a commitment to the larger Indian political community." Examine critically the nature of Indian model of federalism in the light of the above statement.
- Q13.Party System
Discuss and analyze the fundamental principles of coalition politics in Bihar from the point of view of the fulfilment of the national interests specifically.
- Q14.Local Government
Elucidate and evaluate the local government and its working from the point of view of the empowerment of the Panchayat Raj and the City Institutions with the examples from the grassroot level in Bihar.
- Q15.Government Schemes
Which of the following cities was NOT awarded the five-star garbage-free city rank as per Swachh Survekshan, 2022?
- a)Surat
- b)Bhopal
- c)Navi Mumbai
- d)More than one of the above
- Q16.Executive
The Council of Ministers of a state is collectively responsible to whom?
- a)Chief Minister
- b)Governor
- c)Legislative Assembly
- d)More than one of the above
- e)None of the above
- Q17.Local Government
Consider the following statements: Decentralization was done after the 73rd Amendment of 1. powers of decision making 2. complete system 3. judicial powers 4. administrative powers Which of the above statements are correct?
- a)Only 1, 2 and 3
- b)Only 1, 2 and 4
- c)Only 2, 3 and 4
- d)More than one of the above
- e)None of the above
- Q18.Parliament
Representation in Rajya Sabha includes
- a)Members directly elected by citizens
- b)Members indirectly elected by citizens through their representatives
- c)Members nominated by the President of India
- d)More than one of the above
- e)None of the above
- Q19.Judiciary
Which of the following is related to the Supreme Court of India?
- a)Appellate jurisdiction
- b)Original jurisdiction
- c)Collegium system
- d)More than one of the above
- e)None of the above
- Q20.Local Government
What is the minimum age required to contest elections in Panchayati Raj institutions under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act?
- a)21 years
- b)25 years
- c)18 years
- d)More than one of the above
- e)None of the above
- Q21.Judiciary
In the context of district-level consumer dispute redressal in India, which of the following statements is NOT correct?
- a)The State Government may, if it deems fit, establish more than one District Forum in a district.
- b)One of the members of the District Forum shall be a woman.
- c)The District Forum considers complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed fifty lakh rupees.
- d)More than one of the above
- e)None of the above
- Q22.Local Government
At what level does a Panchayat Samiti operate the Panchayati Raj structure?
- a)District level
- b)Gram Panchayat level
- c)Block-level body
- d)More than one of the above
- e)None of the above
- Q23.Government Schemes
Which of the following was established as a Community Development Programme?
- a)National Extension Service
- b)Integrated Rural Development Programme
- c)Cooperation Movement
- d)More than one of the above
- e)None of the above
- Q24.Constitution — Sources
The phrase 'Equality before law' written in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution has been borrowed from the constitution of which country?
- a)Britain
- b)U.S.A.
- c)France
- d)More than one of the above
- e)None of the above
- Q25.Constitution
How much time did it take to make the Indian Constitution?
- a)1 year 10 months and 12 days
- b)2 years 10 months and 5 days
- c)2 years 11 months and 18 days
- d)More than one of the above
- e)None of the above
- Q26.Constitution — Sources
The concept of the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from the Constitution of
- a)England
- b)Switzerland
- c)Ireland
- d)None of the above
Explanation: The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland.
- Q27.Union & Its Territory
Sikkim became a full-fledged State of the Union of India in
- a)1974
- b)1975
- c)1976
- d)None of the above
Explanation: Sikkim became the 22nd state of the Indian Union on 26 April 1975, after the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975.
- Q28.Judiciary
Consider the following statements about the collegium system: 1. The Supreme Court collegium is a five-member body, which is headed by the incumbent Chief Justice of India (CJI) and comprises four other seniormost Judges of the Court at that time. 2. The Parliament by law has evolved the collegium system. 3. The Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed only through the collegium system. 4. The collegium system was introduced in the year 1993 by Justice P. N. Bhagwati in the landmark First Judges Case. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- a)Only 1
- b)1 and 2
- c)3 and 4
- d)1 and 4
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The Supreme Court collegium is headed by the CJI and comprises four seniormost judges. Statement 2 is incorrect; the collegium system evolved through Supreme Court judgments, not by Parliament. Statement 3 is technically incorrect because while the collegium recommends, the President formally appoints the judges. Statement 4 is incorrect; the collegium system was established in 1993 in the Second Judges Case, not by Justice P.N. Bhagwati in the First Judges Case. Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.
- Q29.Constitutional Amendments
Consider the following statements regarding the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India: 1. It added three words to the Preamble — 'Socialist', 'Secular' and 'Integrity'. 2. It added eight Fundamental Duties to the Constitution. 3. It added new Directive Principles, i.e., Article 39A, Article 43A and Article 47. 4. It granted power to the President, in consultation with the Election Commission, to disqualify members of the State Legislatures. Which of the above statements are incorrect?
- a)1 and 2
- b)3 and 4
- c)2 and 3
- d)1 and 4
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The 42nd Amendment added 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity' to the Preamble. Statement 2 is incorrect as it added ten Fundamental Duties, not eight. Statement 3 is incorrect because while Articles 39A and 43A were added, Article 47 was already present, and Article 48A was added instead of 47. Statement 4 is incorrect as the power to disqualify state legislature members rests with the Governor, not the President. Thus, statements 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect. Among the given options, "2 and 3" is a pair of incorrect statements.
- Q30.Scheduled Tribes
The specifications required for a community to be declared as a Scheduled Tribe are 1. indications of primitive traits 2. distinctive culture 3. shyness of contact with the community at large 4. backwardness and geographical isolation. Which of the above are correct?
- a)Only 1 and 2
- b)Only 2, 3 and 4
- c)Only 1, 3 and 4
- d)All of the above
Explanation: The criteria for identifying a community as a Scheduled Tribe, as laid down by the Lokur Committee (1965), include primitive traits, distinctive culture, geographical isolation, shyness of contact with the community at large, and backwardness. All the given statements align with these criteria.
- Q31.Constitution — Sources
From which country, the Indian Constitution has taken reference for the idea of the Fundamental Rights?
- a)Ireland
- b)United States of America
- c)United Kingdom
- d)Canada
Explanation: The idea of Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution is borrowed from the Constitution of the United States of America (specifically, its Bill of Rights).
- Q32.Fundamental Rights
Untouchability is abolished by which Article of the Indian Constitution?
- a)Article 14
- b)Article 15
- c)Article 17
- d)Article 22
Explanation: Article 17 of the Indian Constitution abolishes 'Untouchability' and prohibits its practice in any form, making it a punishable offense.
- Q33.Judiciary — High Courts
The authority to determine the number of Judges in a High Court rests with which of the following entities?
- a)The President
- b)The Chief Minister of the State
- c)The Prime Minister
- d)The Parliament
Explanation: As per Article 216 of the Indian Constitution, the President of India determines the number of Judges in a High Court from time to time.
- Q34.Schedules of the Constitution
The Fifth Schedule deals with the governance and protection of the interests of which specific group of people?
- a)Scheduled Castes
- b)Religious Minorities
- c)Scheduled Tribes
- d)Linguistic Minorities
Explanation: The Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
- Q35.Judiciary — Landmark Cases
In which case(s) did the Supreme Court of India give for the first time the doctrine of 'basic structure' of the Constitution?
- a)Golaknath vs. State of Punjab
- b)Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala
- c)Minerva Mills vs. Union of India
- d)Both (A) and (B)
Explanation: The Supreme Court of India propounded the doctrine of 'basic structure' of the Constitution for the first time in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala case in 1973.
- Q36.Political Parties
Match the following political parties listed in List-I with their years of establishment in List-II: a. Communist Party of India (Marxist) b. Communist Party of India c. Bahujan Samaj Party d. All India Trinamool Congress (AITC) ; 1. 1964 2. 1998 3. 1925 4. 1984. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
- a)a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2
- b)a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
- c)a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
- d)a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
Explanation: The correct matching is: Communist Party of India (Marxist) - 1964; Communist Party of India - 1925; Bahujan Samaj Party - 1984; All India Trinamool Congress (AITC) - 1998.
- Q37.Parliament — Procedure
Under which Article(s), the Speaker can allow any member of the House to speak in his/her mother tongue?
- a)Article 110 (1)
- b)Article 122 (2)
- c)Article 120 (1)
- d)Both (A) and (B)
Explanation: Article 120 (1) of the Indian Constitution states that the Speaker of the House of the People (Lok Sabha) or the Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) may permit any member who cannot adequately express himself in Hindi or English to address the House in his mother tongue.
- Q38.Government Schemes
Consider the following statements regarding the SVAMITVA scheme: 1. It is a Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Mines. 2. This scheme seeks to create geopositioning infrastructure like CORS network to benchmark five centimetre level accuracy. 3. CORS means Cross-Origin Resource Sharing. 4. The scheme is a reformative step towards establishment of clear ownership of property in rural inhabited (Abadi) areas, by mapping of land parcels using drone technology. Which of the above statements are incorrect?
- a)2 and 4
- b)1 and 3
- c)2 and 3
- d)1 and 4
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The SVAMITVA scheme is a Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, not the Ministry of Mines. Statement 2 is correct: The scheme aims to create geopositioning infrastructure like CORS network for high accuracy. Statement 3 is incorrect: In the context of surveying and GPS, CORS stands for Continuously Operating Reference Stations. Cross-Origin Resource Sharing is a web security concept. Statement 4 is correct: This is the primary objective of the SVAMITVA scheme. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are incorrect.
- Q39.Emergency Provisions
Which of the following is/are the consequence(s) of invoking Article 360, declaration of a financial emergency? 1. The President may order the States to reduce the salaries and allowances of all or any class of employees serving in connection with the State affairs. 2. Money Bills or other financial bills passed by the State Legislature are not required to be reserved for the consideration of the President. 3. The President can issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of employees serving in connection with the affairs of the Union, including the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts. 4. Money Bills or other financial bills are to be reserved for the consideration of the President after they are passed by the Legislature of the State. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
- a)Only 1, 3 and 4
- b)Only 2
- c)Only 1 and 2
- d)All of the above
Explanation: During a financial emergency (Article 360): Statement 1 is correct. The President can direct states to reduce salaries and allowances of state employees. Statement 3 is correct. The President can direct the reduction of salaries and allowances of Union employees, including judges. Statement 2 is incorrect because Money Bills and other financial bills passed by the State Legislature *are required* to be reserved for the President's consideration. Statement 4 is correct, as it states the opposite of statement 2, meaning such bills must be reserved. Thus, 1, 3, and 4 are correct.
- Q40.Constitution — Fundamental Rights
The phrase 'equality before law' used in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution has been borrowed from the Constitution of
- a)Britain
- b)USA
- c)France
- d)More than one of the above
- e)None of the above
- Q41.Making of the Constitution
What was the duration in the making of the Indian Constitution?
- a)1 year 10 months and 12 days
- b)2 years 10 months and 5 days
- c)2 years 11 months and 18 days
- d)More than one of the above
- e)None of the above
- Q42.State Executive
The Council of Ministers in a State is collectively responsible to
- a)the Chief Minister
- b)the Governor
- c)the Legislative Assembly
- d)More than one of the above
- e)None of the above
- Q43.Local Self-Government
Consider the following statements: In the post-73rd Amendment era, there has to be decentralization of 1. decision-making powers 2. system as a whole 3. judicial powers 4. administrative powers. Which of the above statements are correct?
- a)1, 2 and 3 only
- b)1, 2 and 4 only
- c)2, 3 and 4 only
- d)More than one of the above
- e)None of the above
- Q44.Union Legislature
The representation in the Rajya Sabha includes
- a)members directly elected by citizens
- b)members indirectly elected by citizens through their representatives
- c)members nominated by the President of India
- d)More than one of the above
- e)None of the above
- Q45.Judiciary
Which of the following is concerned with the Supreme Court of India?
- a)Appellate jurisdiction
- b)Original jurisdiction
- c)Collegium system
- d)More than one of the above
- e)None of the above
- Q46.Local Self-Government
The minimum age for contesting elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions should be how many years according to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act?
- a)21 years
- b)25 years
- c)18 years
- d)More than one of the above
- e)None of the above
- Q47.Consumer Protection
With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at the district level in India, which one of the following statements is not correct?
- a)The State Government can establish more than one District Forum in a district if it deems fit.
- b)One of the members of the District Forum shall be a woman.
- c)The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed rupees fifty lakhs.
- d)More than one of the above
- e)None of the above
- Q48.Local Self-Government
At what level does a Panchayat Samiti operate a Panchayati Raj structure?
- a)District level
- b)Gram Panchayat level
- c)Block-level body
- d)More than one of the above
- e)None of the above
- Q49.Rural Development
Which one of the following was established as the first programme of community development?
- a)National Extension Service
- b)Integrated Rural Development Programme
- c)Cooperation Movement
- d)More than one of the above
- e)None of the above
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