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UPSC CSE Prelims 2023 — Polity Questions with Answers
All 18 Polity previous-year questions from UPSC CSE Prelims 2023, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. Practise them as a free, timed mock test with instant scoring.
Practice Polity as a timed test →- Q1.Polity
In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' mean?
- a)The principle of natural justice
- b)The procedure established by law
- c)Fair application of law
- d)Equality before law
- Q2.Polity
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons. Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
- Q3.Polity
Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a country?
- a)It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
- b)It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
- c)It defines and limits the powers of government.
- d)It secures social justice, social equality and social security
- Q4.Polity
In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?
- a)1st Amendment
- b)42nd Amendment
- c)44th Amendment
- d)86th Amendment
- Q5.Polity
Consider the following organizations/bodies in India: 1. The National Commission for Backward Classes 2. The National Human Rights Commission 3. The National Law Commission 4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)Only three
- d)All four
- Q6.Polity
Consider the following statements: 1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid. 2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place. 3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent. How many of the above statements are correct?
- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
- Q7.Polity
With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill. 2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations. 3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill. How many of the above statements are correct?
- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
- Q8.Polity
With reference to 'Scheduled Areas' in India, consider the following statements: 1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President. 2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block. 3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States. How many of the above statements are correct?
- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
- Q9.Polity
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration. Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of administration'. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
- Q10.Polity
Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: 1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. 2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. 3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. 4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct?
- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)Only three
- d)All four
- Q11.Polity
Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: 1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women. 2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child-birth. 3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. 4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct?
- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)Only three
- d)All four
- Q12.Polity
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India's public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care. Statement-II: Under India's decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
- Q13.Polity
Consider the following statements: 1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances. 2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention. 3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence. How many of the above statements are correct?
- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
- Q14.Polity
Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India: 1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College. 2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State. 3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala. 4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh. How many of the above statements are correct?
- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)Only three
- d)All four
- Q15.Polity
Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002: Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm × 400 mm. Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
- Q16.Polity
Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day: Statement-I: Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
- Q17.Polity
With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: 1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. 2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security. 3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States. How many of the above statements are correct?
- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
- Q18.Polity
With reference to India, consider the following pairs: Action : The Act under which it is covered 1. Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms : The Official Secrets Act, 1923 2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties : The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others : The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
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