MPPSC 2017 — Polity Questions with Answers
All 29 Polity previous-year questions from MPPSC 2017, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. Practise them as a free, timed mock test with instant scoring.
Practice Polity as a timed test →- Q1.Parliament
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: 1. A private member's bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India. 2. Recently, a private member's bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: A private member is any MP who is not a minister, whether elected or nominated, so statement 1's definition is wrong. Several private member's bills have been passed in the past (e.g., the last one in 1970), so it was not the first time; statement 2 is wrong. Hence neither statement is correct.
- Q2.Government Schemes
'Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme' is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to:
- a)Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels.
- b)Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes.
- c)Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings.
- d)Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme.
Explanation: The Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) component under PMKVY certifies the skills that workers, such as construction workers, have already acquired informally or through traditional channels, giving them formal recognition. Hence option (a).
- Q3.Laws and Acts
With reference to the 'Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)', consider the following statements: 1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction. 2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government. 3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)2 and 3 only
Explanation: Lack of awareness by the apparent owner does not exempt a transaction from being benami, so statement 1 is wrong. Benami properties are liable to confiscation by the Government, so statement 2 is correct. The amended Act provides four authorities and an Appellate Tribunal, so statement 3 is wrong. Only statement 2 is correct.
- Q4.DPSP
Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?
- a)Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
- b)Participation of workers in the management of industries
- c)Right to work, education and public assistance
- d)Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment (1976) added Article 43A, which directs the State to secure participation of workers in the management of industries. The other principles were part of the original DPSP. Hence option (b).
- Q5.Political Theory
Which one of the following statements is correct?
- a)Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.
- b)Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.
- c)Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
- d)Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.
Explanation: In political theory, rights are essentially claims of citizens against the State that the State is obliged to recognise and protect; they are not claims of the State against citizens, nor mere privileges of a few. Hence option (c).
- Q6.Constitutional Bodies
Consider the following statements: 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. 2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. 3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)3 only
Explanation: The Election Commission is currently a three-member body, not five, so statement 1 is wrong. The Election Commission itself, not the Home Ministry, decides the election schedule, so statement 2 is wrong. The Election Commission does resolve disputes over splits and mergers of recognised parties, so statement 3 is correct. Only statement 3 is correct.
- Q7.Judiciary
With reference to the 'Gram Nyayalaya Act', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases. 2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliators. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)2 and 3 only
Explanation: Gram Nyayalayas hear both civil and criminal cases, so statement 1 is wrong. The Act provides for using local social activists as mediators or reconciliators, so statement 2 is correct. Only statement 2 is correct.
- Q8.Parliament
Consider the following statements: 1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party. 2. In the Lok Sabha, a 'Leader of the Opposition' was recognised for the first time in 1969. 3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The Swatantra Party was founded only in 1959, so it could not be the largest opposition party in the first Lok Sabha (statement 1 wrong). The Leader of the Opposition was formally recognised for the first time in 1969 (statement 2 correct). The requirement is one-tenth of total strength (about 55), not 75 (statement 3 wrong). Hence 2 only.
- Q9.Government Schemes
Which of the following are the objectives of 'National Nutrition Mission'? 1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers. 2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women. 3. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice. 4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- a)1 and 2 only
- b)1, 2 and 3 only
- c)1, 2 and 4 only
- d)3 and 4 only
Explanation: The National Nutrition Mission aims to create awareness about malnutrition among pregnant and lactating women (objective 1) and reduce anaemia among children, adolescent girls and women (objective 2). Promoting specific food items like millets or poultry eggs is not among its stated objectives, so 3 and 4 are excluded. Hence 1 and 2 only.
- Q10.Fundamental Rights
Consider the following statements: 1. The Fundamental Right to Equality includes within itself the prohibition of titles. 2. The Constitution provides that no citizen of India shall accept any title from a foreign State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Article 18, dealing with abolition of titles, falls under the Right to Equality (Articles 14-18), so statement 1 is correct. Article 18(3) bars citizens from accepting any title from a foreign State without consent of the President, so statement 2 is correct. Both are correct.
- Q11.Fundamental Duties
Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen? 1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties. 2. They are correlative to legal duties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: No legislative or judicial machinery has been provided in the Constitution to directly enforce Fundamental Duties, so statement 1 is wrong. Fundamental Duties are moral and civic obligations and are not correlative to legal duties, so statement 2 is wrong. Hence neither is correct.
- Q12.Preamble
Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
- a)Liberty of thought
- b)Economic liberty
- c)Liberty of expression
- d)Liberty of belief
Explanation: The Preamble secures to all citizens liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship, but it does not mention 'economic liberty'. Hence option (b).
- Q13.Government Schemes
What is the aim of the programme 'Unnat Bharat Abhiyan'?
- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Unnat Bharat Abhiyan aims to connect institutions of higher education, such as IITs and NITs, with local rural communities to address their developmental challenges through appropriate technologies. Hence option (b).
- Q14.Political Theory
In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?
- a)Rights are correlative with Duties.
- b)Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
- c)Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
- d)Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.
Explanation: Rights and Duties are correlative: the rights of one person imply corresponding duties on others, and the enjoyment of rights presupposes the performance of duties. Hence option (a).
- Q15.Preamble
The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?
- a)The Preamble
- b)The Fundamental Rights
- c)The Directive Principles of State Policy
- d)The Fundamental Duties
Explanation: The Preamble embodies the basic philosophy, ideals and objectives of the Constitution and is regarded as reflecting the mind and intentions of the makers of the Constitution. Hence option (a).
- Q16.Government Bodies
What is the role of the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) in skill development in India? Among the following, which best describes its character?
- a)6
- b)7
- c)8
- d)9
Explanation: The National Skill Development Corporation is a not-for-profit public-private partnership company in which the Government of India holds a minority stake, set up to promote skill development through private sector participation. Hence option (c).
- Q17.Elections
For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by:
- a)anyone residing in India.
- b)a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
- c)any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
- d)any citizen of India.
Explanation: A nomination paper for the Lok Sabha can be filed by any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of any constituency in the country; the person need not be a resident of the contesting constituency. Hence option (c).
- Q18.Government Schemes
With reference to the 'Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana', consider the following statements: 1. The scheme provides LPG connections to women belonging to Below Poverty Line households. 2. The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. Which one of the following best describes the scheme?
- a)Measuring oxygen levels in blood
- b)Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
- c)Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
- d)Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions
Explanation: Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana provides LPG connections to women from Below Poverty Line households (statement 1 correct) and is implemented by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (statement 2 correct). Both are correct.
- Q19.Government Initiatives
Consider the following in respect of 'National Career Service': 1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India. 2. National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The National Career Service is an initiative of the Ministry of Labour and Employment, not the Department of Personnel and Training, so statement 1 is wrong. It was launched in Mission Mode, so statement 2 is correct. Only statement 2 is correct.
- Q20.Fundamental Rights
Consider the following statements regarding the 'Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009': 1. It makes elementary education a fundamental right for children of the age group 6-14 years. 2. It provides for reservation of seats for children belonging to weaker sections in private unaided schools. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The RTE Act, 2009 gives effect to Article 21A, making free and compulsory elementary education a fundamental right for children aged 6-14 (statement 1 correct), and mandates 25% reservation for disadvantaged children in private unaided schools (statement 2 correct). Both are correct.
- Q21.Government Schemes
With reference to the 'JANANI SURAKSHA YOJANA', consider the following statements: 1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. 2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality by promoting institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Which one best describes the scheme?
- a)1 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Janani Suraksha Yojana is a safe motherhood intervention under the National Health Mission of the Union Government, not the State Health Departments, so statement 1 is wrong. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality by promoting institutional delivery among poor pregnant women, so statement 2 is correct. Hence only 2 is correct.
- Q22.Parliament
Consider the following statements: 1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected. 2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker's post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker's to the Opposition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: India follows the first-past-the-post system, so the winner need not secure 50 percent of votes (statement 1 wrong). The Constitution does not provide that the Speaker's post goes to the ruling party and the Deputy Speaker's to the Opposition; it is only a convention, not a constitutional provision (statement 2 wrong). Hence neither is correct.
- Q23.Rights
The 'right to vote' and 'to be elected' in India is a:
- a)Fundamental Right
- b)Natural Right
- c)Constitutional Right
- d)Legal Right
Explanation: The right to vote and to be elected in India is a Constitutional Right, conferred by the Constitution (Article 326) and detailed through laws, rather than a Fundamental, Natural or merely statutory legal right. Hence option (c).
- Q24.Government Schemes
What is the purpose of 'Vidyanjali Yojana'? 1. To enable the famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India. 2. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community. 3. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- a)2 only
- b)3 only
- c)1 and 2 only
- d)2 and 3 only
Explanation: Vidyanjali Yojana aims to enhance the quality of education in government schools by involving volunteers from the private sector and the community (statement 2 correct). It is not about foreign campuses (1 wrong) or primarily about monetary contributions for infrastructure (3 wrong). Hence 2 only.
- Q25.Government Schemes
What is the aim of the programme 'Unnat Bharat Abhiyan'?
- a)Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and government's education system and local communities.
- b)Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies.
- c)Strengthening India's scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power.
- d)Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them.
Explanation: Unnat Bharat Abhiyan aims to connect institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Hence option (b).
- Q26.Constitutional Bodies
Consider the following statements: 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. 2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. 3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)3 only
Explanation: The Election Commission is a three-member body, not five, so statement 1 is wrong. The Election Commission, not the Home Ministry, decides the election schedule, so statement 2 is wrong. The Election Commission resolves disputes over splits and mergers of recognised parties, so statement 3 is correct. Only statement 3 is correct.
- Q27.Judiciary
In India, Judicial Review implies:
- a)the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
- b)the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
- c)the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.
- d)the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.
Explanation: Judicial review in India means the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders and to declare them void if they violate the Constitution. Hence option (a).
- Q28.Emergency Provisions
Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President's rule in a State? 1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly 2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State 3. Dissolution of the local bodies. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- a)1 and 2
- b)1 and 3
- c)2 and 3
- d)1, 2 and 3
Explanation: On the proclamation of President's rule, the Council of Ministers is always dismissed (so statement 2 is a necessary consequence). However, the State Legislative Assembly may be either dissolved or kept in suspended animation (statement 1 not necessary), and local bodies are not necessarily dissolved (statement 3 not necessary). The not-necessarily consequences are 1 and 3.
- Q29.Executive
Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:
- a)An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
- b)A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
- c)A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
- d)A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.
Explanation: The principle underlying the Cabinet form of government is collective responsibility of the executive (the Council of Ministers) to the legislature; the Cabinet stands or falls together before Parliament. Hence option (d).
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