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IBPS PO 2022 — English Language Questions with Answers

All 98 English Language previous-year questions from IBPS PO 2022, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. Practise them as a free, timed mock test with instant scoring.

1. Q1.Reading Comprehension

   Read the passage and answer. Passage: LIC is known as India's largest government-owned life insurance and investment corporation. The main role of LIC is to invest in global financial markets and different government securities after gathering funds from people through their various life insurance policies. At least 75% of these gathered funds are to be invested in Central and State Government securities. LIC aims to spread awareness about the importance of life insurance among people living in rural areas and socially and economically backward classes; it aims to meet several life insurance needs of the community people; and it aims to deploy the funds to the best advantage of the investors and the community as well. The LIC subscribes to and underwrites the shares, bonds, and debentures of several financial corporations and grants term loans. It maintains a relationship with other financial institutions such as IDBI, UTI, IFCI, etc for coordination of its investment. Since the funds at the disposal of the LIC are in the nature of trust money, they should be invested in such securities which do not diminish in value and give the highest possible return. Why does LIC maintain relationships with other financial institutions?

   • a)for getting more profit
   • b)to get a fair return
   • c)for coordination of its investment
   • d)to get the best advantage from the investor
   • e)None of the above
2. Q2.English Language

   Directions (1-8): Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Some words in the passage have been highlighted to aid in answering the question. Passage: The off-cycle meeting of the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) on May 2 and May 4 and its decision to raise the repo rate to 4.4% sends a clear signal that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is committed to its mandate of keeping the consumer price index (CPI) inflation rate at 4% with an upper and lower band of plus or minus 2 percentage points. While stating that the policy remains accommodative, it has also expressed its intent to withdraw the accommodative stance. This policy response to global downward risks — including energy price volatility, supply chain disruptions due to geopolitical risks and macroeconomic uncertainties — is welcome. The RBI has re-calibrated the monetary policy corridor. As per the recent MPC off-cycle meeting, the standing deposit facility (SDF) rate stands adjusted to 4.15% and the marginal standing facility (MSF) rate and the Bank Rate to 4.65%. Raising of the cash reserve ratio (CRR) to 4.5% is expected to absorb liquidity of ₹87,000 crore. Till the eruption of conflict in Europe, what was expected on the monetary policy front was a gradual move away from an accommodative stance, spread over a year or so. But the continuing war has necessitated urgent steps. The RBI has thus responded to the charge that it is behind the curve on inflation. High inflation and low growth stare at the global economy, adding to uncertainty. The West is fearing stagflation. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) has revised its global growth forecast for 2022 downwards by 0.8 percentage point to 3.6%, in a short period of three months. The fact that the wholesale price index (WPI) inflation rate was continuing at two-digit numbers for a year and the CPI has remained above the upper band of 6% for three consecutive months has been a cause for concern. It is generally agreed that the WPI has a lagged effect on the CPI. So, the RBI will have to tighten the stance further if it is to bring down the CPI inflation rate within the band in the next few months. Hence, more tightening is on the way. High levels of inflation will have a deleterious effect on investment and growth in India. Similarly, the high rate of inflation with very high food and energy components erodes the purchasing power of the common man, and will have serious welfare implications. Q1. What can be inferred about the economy of the world from the passage?

   • a)The continuing war in Europe has caused major concerns with respect to foreign investments
   • b)High inflation plagues the world due to the many factors of uncertainty affecting the economy.
   • c)Recession and unemployment rates are growing due to a fall in economic stability.
   • d)both (b) and (c)
   • e)All of these
3. Q3.English Language

   Refer to the passage on the RBI Monetary Policy Committee's off-cycle meeting and repo rate hike (Q1-8 passage). Q2. Which of the following was/were the objectives of the off-cycle meeting by RBI?

   • a)controlling inflation
   • b)countering global uncertainty
   • c)addressing charges of inaction
   • d)both (a) and (b)
   • e)All of these
4. Q4.English Language

   Refer to the passage on the RBI Monetary Policy Committee's off-cycle meeting and repo rate hike (Q1-8 passage). Q3. Which of the following come(s) under the changes introduced by the RBI's new policies?

   • a)RBI's new policies make only marginal changes even in view of the war as the policies are already sufficient to counter that risk.
   • b)The RBI has chosen a defensive stance against geopolitical factors to counter inflation by adopting these policies.
   • c)RBI, with its new policies, has shown that it intends to keep its economic stance rigid till some time despite their previous commitments of change.
   • d)RBI is following in the footsteps of other economic authorities to counter disturbances in economic structure.
   • e)RBI is making changes as it goes along in accordance with factors of ever-present uncertainty which has been helpful in keeping inflation in control.
5. Q5.English Language

   Refer to the passage on the RBI Monetary Policy Committee's off-cycle meeting and repo rate hike (Q1-8 passage). Q4. Which of the following if correct, most invalidates the arguments in the third passage?

   • a)WPI inflation rate is projected to come down to single digits in the coming months.
   • b)Changes in trends of WPI rate do not depend on changes in trends of CPI rate.
   • c)The IMF does not need to revise its global growth forecast after every trend change.
   • d)The changes made by RBI are enough to counteract current trend of inflation.
   • e)The economy of Western countries is capable of rapidly recovering from inflation.
6. Q6.English Language

   Refer to the passage on the RBI Monetary Policy Committee's off-cycle meeting and repo rate hike (Q1-8 passage). Q5. Which of the following is true according to the data in the passage?

   • a)WPI and CPI have been staggered for some time now.
   • b)High levels of inflation are projected in the near future in India.
   • c)Global forecast has decreased 0.8% from its initial forecast.
   • d)RBI has raised the SDF, MSF, and the CRR rates in the recent meeting.
   • e)RBI intends to adopt an accommodative stance when it's feasible.
7. Q7.English Language

   Refer to the passage on the RBI Monetary Policy Committee's off-cycle meeting and repo rate hike (Q1-8 passage). Q6. What is the primary focus of the author in the passage?

   • a)Pointing out the oversight by RBI in delaying the newly drafted policies
   • b)Bringing to light the effects of inflation in global economy
   • c)Suggesting action by pointing out the similarity of inflation trends worldwide
   • d)Noting the effects of inflation and emphasising the importance of proper action
   • e)Connecting the variation of rate of inflation with change in policies
8. Q8.English Language

   Refer to the passage on the RBI Monetary Policy Committee's off-cycle meeting and repo rate hike (Q1-8 passage). Q7. From among the following given options, choose the word most similar in meaning to the highlighted word "gradual", as used in the context of the passage.

   • a)intermediate
   • b)measured
   • c)restrained
   • d)uniform
   • e)calculated
9. Q9.English Language

   Refer to the passage on the RBI Monetary Policy Committee's off-cycle meeting and repo rate hike (Q1-8 passage). Q8. Which of the following words is most opposite in meaning to the highlighted word "deleterious"?

   • a)inimical
   • b)torpid
   • c)mortifying
   • d)sinistral
   • e)abject
10. Q10.English Language

    Directions (9-10): In the following questions six sentences are given. Further, these sentences may or may not form a contextually meaningful sequence, and one of these sentences is redundant to the context, which has to be eliminated. Rearrange the other sentences to make a contextually meaningful paragraph. The sentence (B), which has already been highlighted, would be the second sentence after rearrangement. Answer the follow-up questions. (A) Thirteen plumes of the gas were observed at the Raspadskya mine, the largest coal mine in Russia, in late January during a single pass of a satellite operated by GHGSat, a commercial emissions-monitoring firm. (B) The finding is another indication of the scope of the problem of curbing emissions of methane, a potent planet-warming gas. (C) By contrast, the highest rate measured at Aliso Canyon, a natural gas storage facility in Southern California that had a major leak for nearly four months in 2015 and 2016, was about 60 metric tons an hour. (D) The total flow rate from all the plumes was estimated at about 87 metric tons (about 95 U.S. tons) an hour. (E) A remote-sensing satellite has detected one of the largest releases of methane from a single industrial site, an underground coal mine in south-central Russia. (F) Mr. Wight said it was not known how long the releases continued at this rate at the mine. But several previous satellite passes had detected emissions in the tens of tons an hour. Q9. Which is the fourth sentence after rearrangement?

    • a)A
    • b)D
    • c)E
    • d)C
    • e)B
11. Q11.English Language

    Refer to the six sentences (A-F) about methane plumes detected at the Raspadskya coal mine (Q9-10 set). Q10. What is the correct rearrangement of the given sentences?

    • a)ABEDC
    • b)CBADF
    • c)EBADC
    • d)ABDEF
    • e)ABDCF
12. Q12.English Language

    Direction (11-13): Out of the given statements, only one is grammatically correct. Choose that statement as the answer. If all the sentences are incorrect, then choose option (e) as the answer. Q11.

    • a)The Union Cabinet recently approved the auction of airwaves capable at offering fifth generation telecom services.
    • b)Indian health policymakers needs to be very strategic and pragmatic in the use of a third COVID-19 vaccine shot.
    • c)The frequent leak of examination papers has been a major problem with regard to recruitment of government jobs.
    • d)The government will ensure that the visitors to the new market, as well as their traders, get a unique and quality experience.
    • e)None of these
13. Q13.English Language

    Direction (11-13): Out of the given statements, only one is grammatically correct. Choose that statement as the answer. If all the sentences are incorrect, then choose option (e) as the answer. Q12.

    • a)Despite India's open willingness to take part in the development of Sri Lanka after the civil war, the scale of its involvement has been modest.
    • b)The recent geopolitical events transpiring around the world in practically all regions has made the global security climate more unstable.
    • c)The commanders have proved inept in devising plans and taken appropriate decisions in battlefield conditions against a determined enemy.
    • d)The central bank is ramping up its drive to tighten credit and slow growth while inflation having reached a four-decade high of 8.6%.
    • e)None of these
14. Q14.English Language

    Direction (11-13): Out of the given statements, only one is grammatically correct. Choose that statement as the answer. If all the sentences are incorrect, then choose option (e) as the answer. Q13.

    • a)Banksia canei, commonly known as the mountain banksia, is a species of shrub that is endemic to southeastern Australia.
    • b)Block printing first comes to Europe as a method for printing on cloth, where it was common by the year 1300.
    • c)After the 1918-20 flu pandemic, the influenza virus continued to be on circulation and present even today.
    • d)A strong political opposition is usually needed to help keep the ruling dispensation on check.
    • e)None of these
15. Q15.English Language

    Directions (14-18): In the following questions, a statement is given with a blank followed by five options. Choose the pair of words that fill in the given blank making the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Q14. The king released the lion from its cage into the arena where the champion stood, and by the end, the champion ultimately turned out to be _______________.

    • a)philanthropic/miser
    • b)noble/wicked
    • c)brave/cowardly
    • d)clumsy/careful
    • e)concerned/relaxed
16. Q16.English Language

    Directions (14-18): In the following questions, a statement is given with a blank followed by five options. Choose the pair of words that fill in the given blank making the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Q15. Observing all the reports, the supervisor noted that the productivity of the warehouse was _____________ for the company's needs.

    • a)satisfactory/unsatisfactory
    • b)sufficient/insufficient
    • c)viable/inviable
    • d)complete/incomplete
    • e)hindered/unhindered
17. Q17.English Language

    Directions (14-18): In the following questions, a statement is given with a blank followed by five options. Choose the pair of words that fill in the given blank making the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Q16. As soon as he entered the room, he was unable to see anything due to the stark ____________ inside.

    • a)dampness/dryness
    • b)loudness/silence
    • c)darkness/brightness
    • d)order/chaos
    • e)fragrance/odour
18. Q18.English Language

    Directions (14-18): In the following questions, a statement is given with a blank followed by five options. Choose the pair of words that fill in the given blank making the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Q17. Noticing how the dimensions of the bridge were different than that of others in the city, my guest asked me why the bridge was so _____________________.

    • a)bleak/glowing
    • b)opulent/faded
    • c)modern/pedestrian
    • d)wide/narrow
    • e)sturdy/weak
19. Q19.English Language

    Directions (18-20): In each of the following questions, two sentences are given. Five connectors are provided to connect the sentences. Find the correct option to connect these two sentences without changing the intended meaning. Q18. (i) BIMSTEC has, finally, taken measures to strengthen the Secretariat, (ii) some members are yet to extend adequate personnel support to it.

    • a)and
    • b)however
    • c)as if
    • d)although
    • e)even as
20. Q20.English Language

    Directions (18-20): In each of the following questions, two sentences are given. Five connectors are provided to connect the sentences. Find the correct option to connect these two sentences without changing the intended meaning. Q19. (i) Earlier in March, Musk said he would put the deal "temporarily on hold", (ii) he waits for the social media company to provide more of its data.

    • a)while
    • b)with regard to
    • c)therefore
    • d)however
    • e)whenceforth
21. Q21.English Language

    Directions (18-20): In each of the following questions, two sentences are given. Five connectors are provided to connect the sentences. Find the correct option to connect these two sentences without changing the intended meaning. Q20. (i) There are nearly 500 plus heritage buildings dotting the skyline of Mysuru, (ii) only about 150 are notified while the rest are not declared as heritage buildings.

    • a)by whom
    • b)of which
    • c)from that
    • d)and then
    • e)seeing as
22. Q22.English Language

    Directions (21-27): Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Some words in the passage have been highlighted to aid in answering the question. Passage: Vegetarian diets lower the burden of chronic diseases. Lacto-vegetarians are often impressively healthier – sometimes a lot healthier – than meat eaters. It is uncertain whether this advantage extends to vegans. Plant-based diets containing whole grains, nuts, fruits and vegetables are low in saturated fats and cholesterol and higher in fibre, vitamin C, folate, potassium, magnesium, and phytochemicals implicated in the protection against many diseases. Such diets also lower the risk of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Diets low in fibre and in which chicken and meat are the principal ingredients can dramatically increase the incidence of colorectal cancers. Plant foods are also high in phytochemicals called polyphenols and contain higher proportions of polyunsaturated fatty acids. These substances have recently been shown to have beneficial effects on maintaining the integrity of brain function during the ageing process. Vegetarian diets may help in weight loss and long-term weight control and are associated with longevity. Diets containing animal products are generally higher in fat and calorific value while plant foods are low in energy and are nutrient dense. However, the more limiting a diet is, the more difficult it is to get all the nutrients required by your body. Can vegetarian diets, therefore, be balanced, complete and healthy? The answer is yes. According to the American Dietetic Association "appropriately planned vegetarian diets are healthful, nutritionally adequate and may provide health benefits in the prevention and treatment of certain diseases. Well-planned vegetarian diets are suitable for individuals during all stages of the life-cycle and for athletes." Only the most restrictive vegan diets can perhaps cause nutritional concerns and compromise on calcium, iron, zinc, vitamin B12 and sometimes even protein. Vegetarian meals need not be boring or limiting. Whip up a variety of recipes from plant foods and feast on them. If you can't be a vegetarian, a healthy option would be to limit intake of animal foods and increase intake of fruits and vegetables. Remember what Einstein said: "Nothing will _______ human health and increase chances for survival of life on Earth as much as the evolution to a vegetarian diet." Q21. Which of the following is not a benefit of adopting a vegetarian diet?

    • a)helps lower intake of calories
    • b)helps with weight loss
    • c)helps prevent hypertension
    • d)helps in prevention of cancer
    • e)none of these
23. Q23.English Language

    Refer to the passage on vegetarian diets and chronic diseases (Q21-27 passage). Q22. Which of the following qualifies as a difference between a vegetarian and a non-vegetarian diet?

    • a)Non-vegetarian diets do not properly nourish the body as compared to a vegetarian diet.
    • b)Vegetarian diets provide with low calories as compared to non-vegetarian diets.
    • c)Vegetarian diets can lead to vitamin B12 deficiency whereas non-vegetarian diets do not.
    • d)both (b) and (c)
    • e)All of the above
24. Q24.English Language

    Refer to the passage on vegetarian diets and chronic diseases (Q21-27 passage). Q23. How is proper planning important for a vegetarian lifestyle?

    • a)Promotes health and nutrition
    • b)Prevents diseases
    • c)Makes a vegetarian lifestyle sustainable throughout all life cycles
    • d)Prevents several deficiencies introduced by not having a balanced diet
    • e)All of these
25. Q25.English Language

    Refer to the passage on vegetarian diets and chronic diseases (Q21-27 passage). Q24. Which of the following ways can help in making vegetarian diets more interesting to adopt according to the passage?

    • a)Trying different recipes
    • b)Limit intake of non-vegetarian foods in your diet
    • c)Increase intake of fruits and vegetables in your diet
    • d)both (b) and (c)
    • e)all of these
26. Q26.English Language

    Refer to the passage on vegetarian diets and chronic diseases (Q21-27 passage). The blank in the Einstein quote reads: "Nothing will _______ human health..." Q25. Which of the following words can most appropriately be substituted in the blank in the passage?

    • a)accelerate
    • b)subsist
    • c)catalyse
    • d)benefit
    • e)affect
27. Q27.English Language

    Refer to the passage on vegetarian diets and chronic diseases (Q21-27 passage). Q26. Which of the following words is the most similar in its definition as the highlighted word "adequate", the definition corresponding to its usage in the passage?

    • a)ample
    • b)restrictive
    • c)cooperative
    • d)exuberant
    • e)vivacious
28. Q28.English Language

    Refer to the passage on vegetarian diets and chronic diseases (Q21-27 passage). Q27. Choose the word from the following options which most aptly acts as an antonym to the highlighted word "beneficial" as it is used in the context of the passage.

    • a)fragile
    • b)jittery
    • c)grotesque
    • d)detrimental
    • e)quaint
29. Q29.English Language

    Directions (28-30): An idiom is given in each of the questions below, following which are three sentences or situations. Mark the sentences which accurately represent the idiom as the answer. Q28. Get a second wind (i) Even after dissatisfactory reports on his work, his manager decided to give him another chance. (ii) After reaching a halt in his work, he found himself able to work again after taking a break. (iii) He disinvested from the stocks after he saw another stock's prices going up at an exciting rate.

    • a)Only (ii)
    • b)Both (ii) and (iii)
    • c)Both (i) and (iii)
    • d)All of these
    • e)None of these
30. Q30.English Language

    Directions (28-30): An idiom is given in each of the questions below, following which are three sentences or situations. Mark the sentences which accurately represent the idiom as the answer. Q29. Like two peas in a pod (i) Tim left the party immediately after John did, following in his footsteps. (ii) As soon as the waves subsided, they both realised they were lost and stranded in the open sea. (iii) The two employees joined the firm at the same time can always be found hanging out together.

    • a)Both (i) and (iii)
    • b)Only (iii)
    • c)Only (ii)
    • d)All of these
    • e)None of these
31. Q31.English Language

    Directions (28-30): An idiom is given in each of the questions below, following which are three sentences or situations. Mark the sentences which accurately represent the idiom as the answer. Q30. Once bitten, twice shy (i) He's very cautious while crossing the road after just having recovered from a road accident injury. (ii) After failing the test, he decided to study diligently, but very soon went back to his old habits. (iii) The firm has refrained from actively investing in stocks ever since suffering losses in the recent financial crisis.

    • a)Both (i) and (ii)
    • b)Both (i) and (iii)
    • c)Only (iii)
    • d)All of these
    • e)None of these
32. Q32.English Language

    Reading Comprehension (passage on Russia-Ukraine war and the global food crisis). What can be said about the impact of Russia and Ukraine's war on the global food system?

    • a)Only Russia and Ukraine are experiencing a shortage of food supply.
    • b)The war is affecting not only the global food system but polluting groundwater also.
    • c)The war is further worsening an already battered global food system.
    • d)Global food supply is unaffected by the war but has some impacts of Covid-19.
    • e)None of these
33. Q33.English Language

    Reading Comprehension (Russia-Ukraine war / global food crisis). What can be inferred about Russia and Ukraine's contribution on the global food trade?

    • a)A major part of basic agro-commodities supply comes from both countries.
    • b)Russia and Ukraine both export approximately 12% of food calories traded globally.
    • c)Ukraine alone meets more than half of the global demand for wheat, maize, and rice.
    • d)All of these
    • e)Only (a) and (b)
34. Q34.English Language

    Reading Comprehension (Russia-Ukraine war / global food crisis). According to European Commission what action should be taken to meet global food demand for the current and the next year?

    • a)Wheat-oriented farming should be the priority from now onwards.
    • b)To persuade Russia not to halt the supply of wheat and rice.
    • c)Up to 25 million tonnes of wheat would need to be substituted.
    • d)Mitigating the various tax rates to facilitate the global supply chain.
    • e)None of these
35. Q35.English Language

    Reading Comprehension (Russia-Ukraine war / global food crisis). Which of the following statements mentions the first factor that affects the global food supply?

    • a)Damage of basic agro-commodities in Ukraine due to Russia's invasion.
    • b)Financial sanctions imposed on Russia by developed as well as developing counties.
    • c)Decline in exports and production of essential goods from Ukraine and Russia due to war.
    • d)Disruption in global supply chain of agricultural inputs such as fertilizers and chemicals
    • e)None of these
36. Q36.English Language

    Reading Comprehension (Russia-Ukraine war / global food crisis). What is/are the possible consequence(s) of international response to the rise in price and decrease in food supply from Russia?

    • a)There will be a huge difference in the prices of the same commodities in different countries.
    • b)The effects of food crises would be aggravated mainly because of uncoordinated export bans.
    • c)The number of cases of starvation and malnutrition will rise sharply throughout the world.
    • d)Experience in tackling food crises would help in mitigating the effects of current food crisis.
    • e)Both (b) and (d)
37. Q37.English Language

    Reading Comprehension (Russia-Ukraine war / global food crisis). Which of the following sentences is FALSE as per the information given in the passage? (i) Many countries intend to impose control over exports of essential agricultural commodities. (ii) Food prices and agricultural input prices have declined due to the Russia-Ukraine war. (iii) The world has already experienced a global food crisis in 2007-2008.

    • a)Only (i)
    • b)Both (ii) & (iii)
    • c)Only (ii)
    • d)Both (i) & (ii)
    • e)Only (iii)
38. Q38.English Language

    Reading Comprehension (Russia-Ukraine war / global food crisis). Which of the following statements has/have the correct usage of the word 'keep' used in the passage? (i) Always keep hard to fulfill your dreams. (ii) Doctors recommended medicines that keep aches and pains at bay. (iii) I promised him to keep his personal matter a secret.

    • a)Both (ii) & (iii)
    • b)Only (i)
    • c)Only (ii)
    • d)Both (i) & (ii)
    • e)Only (iii)
39. Q39.English Language

    Reading Comprehension (Russia-Ukraine war / global food crisis). Which of the following words is an antonym of 'retreat' given in the passage?

    • a)engage
    • b)bolster
    • c)arduous
    • d)withdraw
    • e)None of these
40. Q40.English Language

    Reading Comprehension (Russia-Ukraine war / global food crisis). Which of the following words is a synonym of 'pushed' given in the passage?

    • a)jerk
    • b)ambit
    • c)propel
    • d)collapse
    • e)None of these
41. Q41.English Language

    The bold part of the sentence may or may not contain an error; choose the option that best replaces it. 'Water overuse is a huge issue that a lot of peoples are dealing with.' (bold part: 'a lot of peoples are')

    • a)a lot of people is
    • b)lot of people have
    • c)a lot of people are
    • d)a lot of people had
    • e)No improvement required
42. Q42.English Language

    The bold part of the sentence may or may not contain an error; choose the option that best replaces it. 'Teams made up of a number of instructors working together are crucial in fostering creativity.' (bold part: 'Teams made up of')

    • a)Teams make up of
    • b)Team made up in
    • c)Teams made up by
    • d)Team making up of
    • e)No improvement required
43. Q43.English Language

    The bold part of the sentence may or may not contain an error; choose the option that best replaces it. 'He was promoted to the rank of major in recognising of his valour during the battle.' (bold part: 'in recognising of his')

    • a)with recognising of his
    • b)in recognition of his
    • c)in recognising to its
    • d)on recognition to his
    • e)No improvement required
44. Q44.English Language

    The bold part of the sentence may or may not contain an error; choose the option that best replaces it. 'Every individual have rights which must never be taken away.' (bold part: 'individual have rights which')

    • a)individuals has rights which
    • b)individual had rights that
    • c)individual has rights which
    • d)individuals have rights that
    • e)No improvement required
45. Q45.English Language

    Find the part of the sentence with a grammatical or idiomatic error. India continues to face (A)/ several inherent challenges (B)/ to the realm of sustainable (C)/ consumption and production (D).

    • a)A
    • b)B
    • c)C
    • d)D
    • e)No error
46. Q46.English Language

    Find the part of the sentence with a grammatical or idiomatic error. Poorest citizens of a (A)/ country frequently bear (B)/ the burden of the costs (C)/ associated with development. (D)

    • a)A
    • b)B
    • c)C
    • d)D
    • e)No error
47. Q47.English Language

    Find the part of the sentence with a grammatical or idiomatic error. Migration and environmental (A)/ changes are deeply interconnected (B)/ processes, intimately linked (C)/ to development pathways. (D)

    • a)A
    • b)B
    • c)C
    • d)D
    • e)No error
48. Q48.English Language

    Find the part of the sentence with a grammatical or idiomatic error. Women remaining in vulnerable (A)/ environments facing social and (B)/ economic challenges are having an (C)/ impact on its empowerment. (D)

    • a)A
    • b)B
    • c)C
    • d)D
    • e)No error
49. Q49.English Language

    Find the part of the sentence with a grammatical or idiomatic error. As a result of societal and (A)/ economic obstacles, women (B)/ continue to been marginalized and (C)/ live in hazardous conditions. (D)

    • a)A
    • b)B
    • c)C
    • d)D
    • e)No error
50. Q50.English Language

    The sentence has been divided into four phrases which may or may not be in correct order; rearrange them to form a meaningful sentence. India operates the widest spectrum of (A)/ social security schemes which cater (B)/ people than any other country (C)/ to the largest number of (D)

    • a)DABC
    • b)ABDC
    • c)CADB
    • d)ACBD
    • e)No rearrangement required
51. Q51.English Language

    The sentence has been divided into four phrases which may or may not be in correct order; rearrange them to form a meaningful sentence. on the health security front, (A)/ there is the Ayushman Bharat Scheme (B)/ over a million beneficiaries (C)/ of the central government with (D)

    • a)BDAC
    • b)ACBD
    • c)ABDC
    • d)DABC
    • e)No rearrangement required
52. Q52.English Language

    Four words in the sentence are highlighted and may or may not be in their correct positions; choose the option indicating the words to be interchanged. The BRICS provides an appropriate shape (A) model suitable for the 21st century where a dominated (B) group of states narrow (C) by one power will not governance (D) the agenda.

    • a)B-C
    • b)A-B
    • c)A-D & B-C
    • d)A-C & B-D
    • e)No replacement required
53. Q53.English Language

    Four highlighted words may or may not be in correct positions; choose the option indicating the words to be interchanged. A lead (A) to exchange experiences on societal benefits (B) and growth as complementary goals would forum (C) to fresh thinking on employment (D) and the environment.

    • a)B-C
    • b)A-B & C-D
    • c)A-C
    • d)A-C & B-D
    • e)No replacement required
54. Q54.English Language

    Four highlighted words may or may not be in correct positions; choose the option indicating the words to be interchanged. Harnessing the potential (A) of the digital revolution requires redefining (B) digital access that goes beyond physical connectivity (C) to share specific opportunities (D) available.

    • a)B-C
    • b)A-B
    • c)A-B & C-D
    • d)A-C & B-D
    • e)No replacement required
55. Q55.English Language

    Four highlighted words may or may not be in correct positions; choose the option indicating the words to be interchanged. The Senate passed a bill that investment (A) the largest represents (B) ever made in the United States to advance rebate (C) energy and provide middle-class people with a tax sustainable (D).

    • a)B-C
    • b)A-B & C-D
    • c)A-B
    • d)A-C & B-D
    • e)No replacement required
56. Q56.English Language

    Cloze test (Directions 25-30): 'As the pandemic made its mark in 2022, the planet _____(25)_____ a series of growing environmental challenges...' Choose the most appropriate word for blank (25).

    • a)endured
    • b)evaded
    • c)relished
    • d)adored
    • e)deified
57. Q57.English Language

    Cloze test (Directions 25-30): choose the most appropriate word to fill blank (26) in the passage on the 2022 environmental challenges.

    • a)propitious
    • b)felicitous
    • c)congruous
    • d)precipitous
    • e)auspicious
58. Q58.English Language

    Cloze test (Directions 25-30): choose the most appropriate word to fill blank (27) in the passage on the 2022 environmental challenges.

    • a)affable
    • b)genial
    • c)stark
    • d)embark
    • e)ornate
59. Q59.English Language

    Cloze test (Directions 25-30): choose the most appropriate word to fill blank (28) in the passage on the 2022 environmental challenges.

    • a)fortified
    • b)exposed
    • c)shielded
    • d)annexed
    • e)braced
60. Q60.English Language

    Cloze test (Directions 25-30): choose the most appropriate word to fill blank (29) in the passage on the 2022 environmental challenges.

    • a)undermine
    • b)recuperate
    • c)perforate
    • d)vanquish
    • e)interlude
61. Q61.English Language

    Cloze test (Directions 25-30): choose the most appropriate word to fill blank (30) in the passage on the 2022 environmental challenges.

    • a)improve
    • b)rectify
    • c)resolve
    • d)disapprove
    • e)engage
62. Q62.English Language

    Read the passage on mental health in prisons. Context: The NCRB Prison Statistics India Report 2021 records 9,180 prisoners with mental illness and 150 deaths by suicide, but does not clarify what counts as a mental illness, when the onset was, or how long inmates have been imprisoned. Prisons are meant for reform and rehabilitation yet create despair; undertrials make up over 70% of the prison population and more than half of those with mental illness are undertrials. Project 39A's report 'Deathworthy' on mental health and the death penalty is also cited. Q: What is the mentioned difficulty associated with diagnosing mental illness?

    • a)Prisoners pretend to be suffering from mental illness to get discharged.
    • b)Sometimes, minor stress or depression are also mistakenly considered a mental illness.
    • c)Exact criteria to identify the mental illness accurately aren't well known.
    • d)People often try to conceal their mental illness in fear of social abuse.
    • e)None of these
63. Q63.English Language

    (Passage on mental health in prisons - NCRB Prison Statistics India Report 2021.) What did the NCRB demonstrate in its Prison Statistics Report?

    • a)Mental illness is especially pronounced among women prisoners.
    • b)Mental illness usually remains untreated as people don't consider it an ailment.
    • c)Poor health service is a major challenge in many countries including India.
    • d)The mental health crisis is conspicuous in prisons today.
    • e)None of these
64. Q64.English Language

    (Passage on mental health in prisons; undertrials make up over 70% of the prison population.) From the information given in the passage, what is stated about the prison population?

    • a)Prisons are overcrowded due to the slow processing of the legal system.
    • b)Prisons have more of an undertrial population than total convicts,
    • c)Youth detention centers have more population as compared to prisons.
    • d)On average, the population of women prisoners is more than men prisoners.
    • e)None of these
65. Q65.English Language

    (Passage on mental health in prisons; Project 39A's report 'Deathworthy'.) According to Deathworthy, what is the major reason behind suicide cases in prison?

    • a)Separation from family makes the prisoners mentally fragile.
    • b)Living within a confined area causes suicidal thoughts among prisoners
    • c)Absence of any social support and violence against prisoners.
    • d)Extreme anxiety coupled with hopelessness among prisoners
    • e)Both c) and d)
66. Q66.English Language

    (Passage on mental health in prisons - NCRB / NRCB.) Which of the following statements is definitely true about NRCB as per the information given in the passage?

    • a)It doesn't provide any methods to take care of the mental ill-health of prisoners.
    • b)NRCB doesn't keep any information about prisoners and crimes.
    • c)It conducts mental health training and stress management seminars.
    • d)Both a) and b)
    • e)None of these
67. Q67.English Language

    (Passage on mental health in prisons.) Which of the following can be concluded from the passage?

    • a)A prison is a place to keep convicts far from society so that they can no longer harm innocent people.
    • b)Prisons are intended for depriving criminals of their freedom and a way of making them pay a debt to society for their crimes.
    • c)A prison is meant to facilitate rehabilitation but has become disempowering spaces with a mental health crisis.
    • d)Prisons provide warnings to people thinking about committing crimes but also keep a check on convicts' health.
    • e)None of these
68. Q68.English Language

    (Passage on mental health in prisons.) Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to the passage? (Refers to statements (i), (ii), (iii) given with the passage.)

    • a)only (i)
    • b)only (ii)
    • c)both (ii) and (i)
    • d)both (i) and (iii)
    • e)none of these
69. Q69.English Language

    (From the passage on mental health in prisons.) Which of the following is a synonym of 'Onset' given in the passage?

    • a)dawn
    • b)oblige
    • c)famish
    • d)eternal
    • e)None of these
70. Q70.English Language

    (From the passage on mental health in prisons.) Which of the following is an antonym of 'Revealed' given in the passage?

    • a)deter
    • b)lament
    • c)constrained
    • d)concealed
    • e)None of these
71. Q71.English Language

    (From the passage on mental health in prisons.) Which of the following is a synonym of 'crucial' given in the passage?

    • a)affirm
    • b)pivotal
    • c)slump
    • d)cohesion
    • e)None of these
72. Q72.English Language

    The sentence is divided into four parts (A, B, C, D). Find the part that has a grammatical error: 'In recent years, September, the month where (A) / the monsoon officially recede, has started (B) / to witness multiple downpours and (C) / makes on for deficits in previous months (D).'

    • a)A
    • b)B
    • c)C
    • d)D
    • e)No error
73. Q73.English Language

    Find the part that has a grammatical error: 'On behalf of the people we serve (A) / we have adopted a historic decision on a comprehensive (B) / far-reaching and people-centered set of (C) / universal and transformative Goals and targets (D).'

    • a)A
    • b)B
    • c)C
    • d)D
    • e)No error
74. Q74.English Language

    Find the part that has a grammatical error: 'Awards and prizes recognize achievement (A) / yet in science and medical research, they (B) / are also meant to spurred younger scientists (C) / towards loftier, imagine goals (D).'

    • a)A
    • b)B
    • c)C
    • d)D
    • e)No error
75. Q75.English Language

    Find the part that has a grammatical error: 'The crisis in Indian tea is large (A) / on account stagnating prices, declining efficiency (B) / of plantations - medium-size ones (C) / in particular - and stagnant export demand (D).'

    • a)A
    • b)B
    • c)C
    • d)D
    • e)No error
76. Q76.English Language

    Four words are highlighted; one is misspelt or contextually inappropriate. 'One would think that the repeated ocurrence of tornadoes in an area would prompt an exodus of the residents to a location with a more stable climate.' Which word is wrong?

    • a)ocurrence
    • b)tornadoes
    • c)exodus
    • d)climate
    • e)All are correct
77. Q77.English Language

    Four words are highlighted; one is misspelt or contextually inappropriate. 'Next week's deadline for my reserch paper is looming over me like a dark cloud.' Which word is wrong?

    • a)deadline
    • b)reserch
    • c)looming
    • d)cloud
    • e)All are correct
78. Q78.English Language

    Four words are highlighted; one is misspelt or contextually inappropriate. 'Since I cannot deal with the imtolerable agony of this toothache, I have no choice but to seek the aid of an urgent care specialist.' Which word is wrong?

    • a)imtolerable
    • b)agony
    • c)urgent
    • d)specialist
    • e)All are correct
79. Q79.English Language

    Rearrange the parts (A/B/C/D) to form a grammatically correct and meaningful sentence: 'One of the oldest of the (A) / ayurveda is considered as (B) / medicine accepted worldwide (C) / traditional systems of (D).' Choose the correct order.

    • a)DBAC
    • b)BADC
    • c)CDAB
    • d)ADCB
    • e)No rearrangement required
80. Q80.English Language

    Rearrange the parts (A/B/C/D) to form a grammatically correct and meaningful sentence: 'Moderate warmth was (A) / needed, such as China and Japan (B) / wood was the earliest fuel used (C) / in places where only (D).' Choose the correct order.

    • a)CDBA
    • b)BCAD
    • c)CDAB
    • d)ADCB
    • e)No rearrangement required
81. Q81.English Language

    Rearrange the parts (A/B/C/D) to form a grammatically correct and meaningful sentence: 'In medicine to provide (A) / to keep abreast of evolving knowledge (B) / all practitioners of medicine need (C) / competent care to patients (D).' Choose the correct order.

    • a)DBAC
    • b)BCAD
    • c)CDAB
    • d)CBAD
    • e)No rearrangement required
82. Q82.English Language

    Rearrange the parts (A/B/C/D) to form a grammatically correct and meaningful sentence: 'Every day, thousands of (A) / travel books to fictional books (B) / books are released in (C) / the market ranging from (D).' Choose the correct order.

    • a)DBAC
    • b)BCAD
    • c)ACDB
    • d)ADCB
    • e)No rearrangement required
83. Q83.English Language

    Six sentences (A-F) are given which must be rearranged into a meaningful paragraph. Which of the following would be the correct order of sentences after rearrangement?

    • a)DEBACF
    • b)CDBEAF
    • c)ABCEDF
    • d)BACEDF
    • e)CEDABF
84. Q84.English Language

    Six sentences (A-F) must be rearranged into a meaningful paragraph. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

    • a)A
    • b)B
    • c)C
    • d)D
    • e)E
85. Q85.English Language

    Six sentences (A-F) must be rearranged into a meaningful paragraph. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

    • a)A
    • b)B
    • c)C
    • d)D
    • e)E
86. Q86.English Language

    Six sentences (A-F) must be rearranged into a meaningful paragraph. Which of the following would be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

    • a)A
    • b)B
    • c)C
    • d)D
    • e)E
87. Q87.English Language

    Six sentences (A-F) must be rearranged into a meaningful paragraph. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

    • a)A
    • b)B
    • c)C
    • d)D
    • e)E
88. Q88.English Language

    A part of the sentence is highlighted that may or may not have an error. Choose the best improvement for the highlighted part. 'A duplicitous liar, the deceitful clerk continued to deny steal even though he was caught on camera.'

    • a)to denying stealing even though
    • b)to denying steal even though
    • c)to deny stealing even although
    • d)to deny stealing even though
    • e)No improvement needed
89. Q89.English Language

    Choose the best improvement for the highlighted part. 'Like physical health, one's strong financial health is the result of small, deliberate choices he makes by his life.'

    • a)deliberate choices he makes over
    • b)deliberate choices he made by
    • c)deliberate choice he makes by
    • d)deliberately choices he makes by
    • e)No improvement needed
90. Q90.English Language

    Choose the best improvement for the highlighted part. 'Without a ways to prosper in the region, the natives moved on to land more suitable to farming.'

    • a)Without a ways to prosper on
    • b)Without a way to prosper in
    • c)Without a ways to prosper by
    • d)With a ways to prosper in
    • e)No improvement needed
91. Q91.English Language

    Choose the best improvement for the highlighted part. 'It's not uncommon for a student to choose a career choice sole over the prospect of good jobs.'

    • a)sole by the prospect of
    • b)solely over the prospect of
    • c)sole over the prospects of
    • d)solely over a prospects of
    • e)No improvement needed
92. Q92.Fillers

    Select the option that best fits both blanks. (i) The event management's _______ prep and attention to detail ensured that the program was a smashing success. (ii) The students crafted the model of the car with _______ details and got good grades for their science project.

    • a)Tentative
    • b)Wavering
    • c)Assured
    • d)Meticulous
    • e)Incontestable
93. Q93.Fillers

    Select the option that best fits both blanks. (i) Marketing and sales is an appropriate line of work for a person who is _______ and knows his numbers well. (ii) Although she is a celebrity's daughter, she is very _______ and has no airs about her status.

    • a)Irresistible
    • b)Gregarious
    • c)Inexplicit
    • d)Cursory
    • e)Nonplussed
94. Q94.Fillers

    Select the option that best fits both blanks. (i) They are a _______ bunch of people who think that wearing expensive clothes is the only way of showing off social status. (ii) Instead of being a _______ politician, he took the time and effort to connect with people and their problems.

    • a)Amenable
    • b)Susceptible
    • c)Acquiescent
    • d)Pretentious
    • e)Nebulous
95. Q95.Fillers

    Select the option that best fits both blanks. (i) After conducting an investigation, the detective was able to uncover the _______ plot devised by the victim's daughter. (ii) He took a rather _______ route which avoids the city center.

    • a)Invective
    • b)Salient
    • c)Pivotal
    • d)Decry
    • e)Devious
96. Q96.Cloze Test

    Read the passage and answer. Passage: The free movement of people, goods, ideas, and services across borders - globalization - has allowed for efficiencies of scale and technological _____(A) that helped improve the lives of billions. Most people have never known a world in which globalization wasn't _____(B) with the word "progress". As the last three years of geopolitical chaos and _____(C) of populism have made clear, there have been plenty who have been left behind by globalization. That has been true of the middle and working classes of the world's advanced industrial countries, who see the _____(D) of a new global middle class in Asia and Latin America as coming at the cost of their own well-being. For the first time, the momentum behind globalization is starting to _____(E). Which word best fits blank (A)?

    • a)Progression
    • b)Enunciation
    • c)Competence
    • d)Inability
    • e)No change
97. Q97.Fillers

    Fill the blanks in Column-I using the words in Column-II. Column-I: (E) The economic shock of the pandemic has been _____ well by the commercial banking system. (F) Macroeconomic stability _____ suggest that the Indian economy is well placed to take on the challenges of 2022-23. (G) 44 Indian start-ups have _____ unicorn status in 2021 taking the overall tally of unicorns to 83. Column-II: (i) indicators (ii) weathered (iii) achieved

    • a)E-(ii), F-(i) and G-(iii)
    • b)G-(iii) only
    • c)E-(ii) only
    • d)G-(ii) and G-(iii)
    • e)E-(ii) and G-(ii) only
98. Q98.Reading Comprehension

    Read the passage and answer. Passage: With the Humane Agrarian Centre, a one-of-a-kind rural museum, Prem Singh's farm stands as an exception in the hilly region of Bundelkhand. Despite all the odds, Prem Singh went debt-free without loans from banks by taking the less travelled road. He now practices Avartansheel Kheti (Periodic proportionate farming), based on the philosophy of A Nagraj. Mr Singh insists that farmers should produce food for themselves first and what remains after consumption should be sold in the market; this way, the farmer will never use harmful pesticides and fertilisers. He divides the farm into three parts: the core one-third for fruits and crops, the outer one-third for timber, and the remaining for animal husbandry. He processes all his produce - pickle from turmeric, candy and powder from amla, paneer from milk - and sells directly to reach consumers. His multi-pronged technique is similar to the idea of farming Prime Minister Narendra Modi has been propagating in his addresses to farmers. Which of the following CANNOT be inferred from the passage?

    • a)It is possible to earn more through Periodic proportionate farming than the traditional method
    • b)Making farmers produce food for themselves first reduces the possibility of using harmful pesticides and fertilisers
    • c)Periodic proportionate farming can solve the problem of water availability in India completely
    • d)Mr Singh's approach towards farming is similar to that of Prime Minister Narendra Modi
    • e)None of these